MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) What is the primary ecological role of prokaryotes?
A) parasitizing eukaryotes, thus causing diseases
B) serving as primary producers in terrestrial environments
C) metabolizing materials in extreme environments
D) adding methane to the atmosphere
E) the decomposition of organic matter
2) Why do biologists now reject the use of a single kingdom Monera for all prokaryotic organisms?
A) Molecular evidence shows that archaea and eukaryotes share a more recent common ancestor than archaea and bacteria.
B) Only prokaryotic organisms show growth inhibition in the presence of antibiotics.
C) Structural data show that bacteria are more closely related to eukaryotes and that archaea differ in a greater number of characteristics.
D) Only eukaryotic organisms have membrane-enclosed organelles.
E) Only species of archaea lack the noncoding parts of genes (that is, introns).
3) If archaeans are more closely related to eukaryotes than to bacteria, then which of the following is it reasonable to propose?
A) Archaean DNA should be single-stranded.
B) Archaean ribosomes should be larger than typical prokaryotic ribosomes.
C) Archaean genophores should have no protein bonded to them.
D) Archaeans should lack cell walls.
E) Archaean DNA should have no introns.
4) Broad-spectrum antibiotics inhibit the growth of most intestinal bacteria. Consequently, a hospital patient who is receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics is most likely to become __________, assuming that nothing is done to counter the reduction of intestinal bacteria.
A) unable to digest cellulose
B) antibiotic resistant
C) deficient in certain vitamins
D) unable to fix nitrogen
E) unable to synthesize peptidoglycan
5) The antibiotics known as penicillins inhibit the ability of certain bacteria to
A) synthesize proteins.
B) form spores.
C) replicate DNA.
D) synthesize cell walls.
E) perform respiration.
6) Prokaryotic organisms have recently been divided into two domains, bacteria and archaea. This division is based primarily on
A) presence or absence of introns.
B) Only B and C are correct.
C) kind of inhibitor amino acid for start of protein synthesis.
D) differences in cell wall composition.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
7) Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we classify them in different taxonomic units. Which of these observations comes closest to explaining why these organisms are placed in different taxa?
A) Some have cell walls only for protection from herbivores.
B) Their cell walls are constructed from very different biochemicals.
C) Some closely resemble animals, which lack cell walls.
D) Some have cell walls only to control osmotic balance.
E) Some have cell walls only for support.
8) Which of the following would most likely occur if all prokaryotes were suddenly to perish?
A) Only the organisms that feed directly on prokaryotes would suffer any harmful effects.
B) All life would eventually perish due to disease.
C) Very little change would occur because prokaryotes are not of significant ecological importance.
D) All life would eventually perish because of increased global warming due to the greenhouse effect.
E) Many organisms would perish as nutrient recycling underwent dramatic reduction.
9) If all the bacteria on Earth suddenly disappeared, which of the following would be the most likely and most direct result?
A) Earth's total photosynthesis would decline markedly.
B) There would be little change in Earth's ecosystems.
C) Human populations would thrive in the absence of disease.
D) Recycling of nutrients would be greatly reduced, at least initially.
E) The number of organisms on Earth would decrease by 10-20%.
10) Which is the least accurate statement about the evolution of prokaryotes and the changing environment of Earth?
A) Oxygen-producing photosynthesis favored the evolution of cells capable of performing aerobic respiration.
B) Prokaryotes have interacted with the environment for more than 3.5 billion years.
C) Bacteria are among several kinds of organisms that recycle chemical elements in ecosystems.
D) Cyanobacteria evolved before aerobically respiring bacteria.
E) Although prokaryotes have a diverse morphology, they basically have the same metabolic pathways and products.
11) In regard to prokaryotic reproduction, which of the following is true?
A) Mutation is a primary source of variation in prokaryote populations.
B) Prokaryotes have ways of exchanging some of their genes by conjugation, syngamy, and transduction.
C) Prokaryotes feature syngamy as done by eukaryotes.
D) Prokaryotes perform meiosis.
E) Prokaryotes skip sexual life cycles because their life cycle is too short.
12) Of all the organisms, the prokaryotes have the greatest range of metabolic diversity. Among the prokaryotes listed below, which are currently the most important ecologically?
A) obligate anaerobes
B) extreme halophiles
D) nitrogen fixers
13) Which of the following statements is true of chemoautotrophs?
A) They obtain their energy from oxidizing chemical compounds and get their carbon skeletons from organic compounds.
B) They use hydrogen sulfide as their hydrogen source for the photosynthesis of their organic compounds.
C) They "feed themselves" by obtaining energy from the chemical bonds of organic molecules.
D) They live as decomposers of inorganic chemicals in organic litter.
E) They oxidize inorganic compounds to obtain energy to drive the synthesis of their organic compounds.
14) If the following events had left physical evidence of their occurrences, then which could indicate that Earth's environment was switching from a reducing one to an oxidizing one around 2.7 billion years ago?
A) evolution of aerobic respiration
B) extinction of many anaerobic prokaryotes
C) precipitation of iron oxide
D) evolution of antioxidant mechanisms
E) All of the above could provide evidence of the rise of an oxidizing environment.
15) Archaeans are currently assigned to either one of two putative kingdoms, based on
A) whether or not they possess cell walls.
B) whether their metabolisms produce methane or oxygen as a by-product.
C) the habitats they prefer.
D) nucleotide sequences of small-subunit ribosomal RNA.
E) the composition of their cell walls.
16) In a practice known as crop rotation, farmers alternate a crop of legumes (plants, like beans, whose roots bear nodules containing Rhizobium) with a crop of nonlegumes. What is the benefit of this practice?
A) It prevents the farmer from being personally exposed to the same crop pathogens year after year.
B) It keeps the plants from getting too used to the bacteria in a particular variety of soil.
C) Rhizobium fixes nitrogen, and excess products of this process can fertilize the soil.
D) It keeps those bacteria that are plant pathogens from becoming pesticide resistant.
E) It keeps the plants from becoming pesticide resistant.
17) Symbiosis is common among prokaryotes and probably has been for billions of years. Which of the following does not represent a known prokaryotic symbiosis?
A) Bacteria on skin and mucous membranes can control the abundance of pathogenic microbes by outcompeting these microbes.
B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria inhabit root nodules of leguminous plants.
C) Bacteria are required for the pollination of some plants.
D) Some prokaryotes are pathogenic (cause illness).
E) Bacteria in the human intestine produce essential vitamins.
19) A biologist discovers two new species of
organisms, one in
A) a comparison of DNA from the two species
B) the history and timing of continental drift
C) analysis of the behavior of the two species
D) comparative embryology
E) the fossil record of the two species
20) The correct sequence from the most to the least comprehensive of the taxonomic levels listed here is
A) phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family, and genus.
B) phylum, family, class, order, kingdom, genus, and species.
C) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species.
D) family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species, and genus.
E) kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, and species.
21) The common house fly belongs to all of the following taxa. Assuming you had access to textbooks or other scientific literature, knowing which of the following should provide you with the greatest amount of detailed information about this organism?
A) order Diptera
B) family Muscidae
C) genus Musca
D) phylum Arthropoda
E) class Hexapoda
22) A randomly selected group of organisms from a taxonomic family should show more genetic variation than a randomly selected group from a
A) order. B) class. C) genus. D) kingdom. E) phylum.
23) The four-chambered hearts of birds and the four-chambered hearts of mammals evolved independently of each other. If one were unaware of this independence, then one might logically assume that
A) the common ancestor of birds and mammals had a four-chambered heart.
B) birds and mammals are more distantly related than is actually the case.
C) the common ancestor of birds and mammals had a three-chambered heart.
D) early mammals possessed feathers.
E) birds and mammals should be placed in the same class.
24) Some claim that the birds should continue to be placed in a class (Aves) separate from the Reptilia, despite evidence from molecular systematics indicating a close relationship between birds and crocodiles. Their claim is based on the extent of the adaptations that birds have undergone for flight. The logic of their claim is most similar to that found in which statement?
A) Pterodactyls are an extinct group of reptiles that were well-adapted for flight and, thus, were the first birds.
B) Dolphins should be classified as fish because of their streamlined bodies and dorsal fins.
C) Convergent evolution has
made the cacti of the
D) Humans should be placed in their own order because no other member of the order Primates features so many modifications for bipedalism.
E) Koalas (Australian marsupials that feed on Eucalyptus leaves) should be placed in a new family because they are so similar in appearance to true (eutherian) bears.
25) Which of the following applies to both anagenesis and cladogenesis?
A) adaptive radiation
D) increased diversity
E) more species
26) What is true of speciation? It
A) must begin with the geographic isolation of a small, peripheral population.
B) occurs at such a slow pace that no one has ever observed the emergence of new species.
C) proceeds at a uniform tempo across all taxa.
D) occurs via anagenesis or cladogenesis, but only the latter increases biodiversity.
E) occurs only by the accumulation of genetic change over vast expanses of time.
27) Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are) correct?
I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation.
II. Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct
forms of life.
III. The biological species is the largest unit of population in which gene
flow is possible.
A) I only B) II only C) II and III D) I and III E) I, II, and III
28) Which of the various species concepts separates species based on the degree of genetic exchange between gene pools?
29) The reproductive barrier that maintains the species boundary between horses and donkeys is
A) gametic isolation.
B) hybrid breakdown.
C) hybrid inviability.
D) hybrid sterility.
E) mechanical isolation.
30) The biological species concept is inadequate for grouping
C) sympatric populations.
D) asexual organisms.
E) endemic populations.
31) A rapid method of speciation that has been important in the history of flowering plants is
A) a mutation in the gene controlling the timing of flowering.
B) genetic drift.
D) behavioral isolation.
32) Which of the following statements about speciation is correct?
A) The goal of natural selection is speciation.
B) Speciation is an example of macroevolution.
C) Natural selection chooses the reproductive barriers for populations.
D) Prezygotic reproductive barriers usually evolve before postzygotic barriers.
E) When reunited, two allopatric populations will not interbreed.
33) The existence of evolutionary trends, such as toward larger body sizes among horse species, is evidence that
A) a larger volume-to-surface area ratio is beneficial to all mammals.
B) evolution generally progresses toward some predetermined goal.
C) an unseen guiding force is at work.
D) evolution always tends toward increased complexity or increased size.
E) in particular environments, similar adaptations can be beneficial in more than one species.
34) All of the following have played important roles in causing macroevolution, except
A) taxonomy and molecular systematics.
B) allometry and paedomorphosis.
C) extinction and adaptive radiation.
D) homeotic gene expression and heterochrony.
E) chance mutations and natural selection.
35) When chemicals are used to control unwanted organisms, then the wisest application strategy, in light of natural selection and assuming that chemicals generally have negative effects on the environment, is to apply
A) large doses of several different chemicals.
B) a small dose of a single chemical.
C) a large dose of a single chemical.
D) moderate doses of several different chemicals.
E) a moderate dose of a single chemical.
36) Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses?
A) by the principle of use and disuse
B) These organisms had the misfortune to experience harmful mutations, which caused the loss of these structures.
C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits.
D) Natural selection cannot account for losses, only for innovations.
E) Both B and D are correct.
37) The theory of evolution is most accurately described as
A) an educated guess about how species originate.
B) an opinion that some scientists hold about how living things change over time.
C) one possible explanation, among several scientific alternatives, about how species have come into existence.
D) an idea about how acquired characteristics are passed on to subsequent generations.
E) an overarching explanation, supported by much evidence, for how populations change over time.
38) Which of the following is the unit of evolution? In other words, which of the following can evolve in the Darwinian sense?
39) Which factor is the most important in producing the variability that occurs in each generation of humans?
A) nonrandom mating
C) genetic drift
D) natural selection
E) genetic recombination
40) Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today?
A) It is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes.
B) It is synonymous with the process of gene flow.
C) It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics.
D) It is goal directed.
E) It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most fit phenotypes.
41) Approximately how far does the fossil record extend back in time?
A) 6,000 years
B) 3,500,000 years
C) 6,000,000 years
D) 3,500,000,000 years
E) 5,000,000,000,000 years
42) The first genetic material was most likely a(n)
A) DNA oligonucleotide.
B) protein enzyme.
D) DNA polymer.
E) RNA polymer.
The questions below refer to the following list, which uses the five-kingdom classification system.
43) Which obsolete kingdom includes prokaryotic organisms?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
44) Which kingdom was most intimately associated with the earliest land plants, both functionally and anatomically?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
45) Which kingdom has recently been replaced with two domains?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
46) Which eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and, therefore, obsolete?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
47) Which kingdoms include free-living photosynthetic organisms?
A) 1 and 5 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 4, and 5 only
D) 1, 2, and 5 only
E) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
48) Which of the following is the strongest evidence that prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes?
A) the primitive structure of plants
B) meteorites that have struck the Earth
C) abiotic experiments that constructed liposomes in the laboratory
D) The oldest fossilized cells resemble prokaryotes.
E) Liposomes look like prokaryotic cells.
49) What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?
51) As the number of kingdoms was increased beyond two, what was true of the kingdom Protista?
A) All photosynthetic organisms were assigned to it.
B) It was used for organisms that did not fit clearly into any of the other, more well-defined kingdoms.
C) Viruses were assigned to this kingdom.
D) Unicellular organisms of all kinds were placed here.
E) It was used to harbor all prokaryotes.
52) Which of the following statements are true about living phytoplanktonic organisms?
1. They are important members of communities surrounding deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
2. They are important primary producers in most aquatic food webs.
3. They are important partners in maintaining oxygen in Earth's seas and atmosphere.
4. They are most often found attached to underwater surfaces.
5. They contain photosystems that are embedded within plastid membranes.
A) 1 and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2, 3, and 5
D) 2, 3, and 4
E) All of the statements are correct.
53) In what ways are all protists alike? They are all
54) The small size and simple construction of prokaryotes imposes limits on the
A) type of reproduction and the number of offspring that can be produced.
B) type of habitat they occupy and the frequency of reproduction that can occur.
C) number of simultaneous metabolic activities and the number of genes present.
D) number of cells that can be associated in organized colonies.
E) ability to reproduce.
55) The strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic organelles is the similarity between extant prokaryotes and
A) mitochondria and chloroplasts.
B) nuclei and chloroplasts.
C) cilia and mitochondria.
D) ribosomes and cilia.
E) ribosomes and nuclei.
56) According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?
A) from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes
B) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for oxygen-using metabolism
C) by tertiary endosymbioses
D) when a protoeukaryote becomes symbiotic with a protobiont
E) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
57) Which organisms represent the common ancestor of all plastids found in photosynthetic eukaryotes?
B) autotrophic euglenoids
E) red algae
58) The following statements are all consistent with the hypothesis that chloroplasts and mitochondria originated as prokaryotic endosymbionts except that they
A) can be cultured on agar since they make all their own proteins.
B) contain circular DNA molecules not associated with histones.
C) have ribosomes that are similar to those of bacteria.
D) are roughly the same size as bacteria.
E) have membranes that are similar to those found in the plasma membranes of prokaryotes.
59) The evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes probably
A) involved symbiosis on many occasions.
B) allowed the formation of both complexity and multicellularity.
C) occurred many times.
D) Both B and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are all correct.
60) The largest seaweeds belong to which group?
A) Phaeophyta (brown algae)
C) Chlorophyta (green algae)
D) Rhodophyta (red algae)
61) Which taxonomic group containing eukaryotic organisms is believed to be ancestral to the plant kingdom?
B) Chlorophyta (green algae)
E) Chrysophyta (golden algae)
62) What provides the best rationale for not classifying the slime molds as fungi? Their
A) nutritional modes
B) choice of habitats
C) reproductive methods
E) SSU-rRNA sequences
63) Bryophytes have all of the following characteristics except
A) a reduced, dependent sporophyte.
C) lignified vascular tissue.
D) a protected, stationary egg cell.
E) specialized cells and tissues.
64) Arrange these adaptations to terrestrial existence in the order in which they first appeared during the evolution of land plants:
2. vascular tissues
3. apical meristems
A) 3, 2, 1, 4 B) 2, 4, 1, 3 C) 2, 3, 1, 4 D) 2, 3, 4, 1 E) 3, 2, 4, 1
65) Which of the following characteristics, if observed in an unidentified green plant, would make it unlikely to be a charophycean?
B) chlorophylls a and b
D) rosette cellulose-synthesizing complex
E) apical meristem
66) THE FOLLOWING ARE all defining CHARACTERISTICS OF LAND PLANTS except
A) being eukaryotic.
B) a cellulose cell wall.
C) vascular tissue.
D) chlorophylls a and b.
E) being photosynthetic autotrophs.
67) The following are all adaptations to life on land except
A) reduced gametophyte generation.
E) rosette cellulose-synthesizing complexes.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
For each numbered challenge posed by life on land, choose the adaptation below that best meets the challenge.
A. nonflagellated sperm
B. tracheids and phloem
C. secondary compounds
E. alternation of generation
68) protection against predators
69) protection against desiccation
70) support against gravity
71) transport of water, minerals and nutrients
72) reproduction away from water
73) The following characteristics all helped seedless plants evolve to be adapted to land except
A) a waxy cuticle.
B) vascular tissue.
C) a branched sporophyte.
E) a dominant gametophyte.
74) Two, small, poorly drained lakes lie close to each other in a boreal forest. The basins of both lakes are composed of the same geologic substratum. One lake is surrounded by a dense Sphagnum mat; the other is not. Compared with the pond without Sphagnum, the pond surrounded by the moss should have
A) lower numbers of bacteria.
B) a lower pH.
C) reduced rates of decomposition.
D) Only B and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
75) Bryophytes never formed forests (mats maybe, but no forests) because
A) not all are heterosporous.
B) they lack lignified vascular tissue.
C) they have no adaptations to prevent desiccation.
D) they possess flagellated sperms.
E) the sporophyte is too weak.
76) Which of the following types of plants would not have been present in the forests that became today's coal deposits?
A) horsetails (Equisetum)
B) pine trees
E) tree ferns
77) The following are all true concerning the sporophyte or gametophyte generations in flowering plants except
A) the flower is composede of gametophyte tissue only.
B) the gametophyte generation consists of relatively few cells within the flower.
C) the sporophyte generation is what we see when observing a plant.
D) unlike ferns, the gametophyte generation is not photosynthetic.
E) the sporophyte generation is dominant.
78) Which of the following is an ongoing trend in the evolution of land plants?
A) a decrease in the size of the leaf
B) the reduction of the gametophyte phase of the life cycle
C) the elimination of sperm cells or sperm nuclei
D) the replacement of roots by rhizomes
E) avoiding being eaten by dinosaurs
79) The following cellular structures are all found in cells of angiosperm or gymnosperm gametophytes except
B) cell walls.
D) endomembrane system.
E) haploid nuclei.
80) Plants with a dominant sporophyte are successful on land partly because
A) their gametophytes are all parasitic on the sporophytes.
B) eggs and sperm need not be produced.
C) they all disperse by means of seeds.
D) diploid plants are more protected from the effects of mutation than are haploid plants.
E) having no stomata, they lose less water.
81) The following are all advantages of seeds for survival except
A) desiccation resistance.
C) a nutrient supply for the embryo.
E) a choice of germination location.
82) The following plant structures are all adaptations specifically for a terrestrial environment except
D) waxy cuticle.
E) cell walls.
83) In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are unique to the seed-producing plants?
B) lignin present in cell walls
C) a haploid gametophyte retained within tissues of the diploid sporophyte
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
84) Which of the following are true of the food reserves of a conifer seed? They are
A) called endosperm.
B) the result of double fertilization.
D) derived from gametophyte tissue.
E) Both C and D are true.
85) Conifers are noted for all of the following except
B) great diversity of species.
D) success in cold climates.
E) utility to humans.
86) What is the main way that pine trees disperse their offspring? They use
A) flagellated sperm swimming through water.
C) fruits that are eaten by animals.
D) squirrels to bury cones.
E) wind-blown seeds.
87) The following statements are all true of the monocots except
A) they possess a single seed leaf.
B) the veins of their leaves are parallel to each other.
C) they are currently thought to be polyphyletic.
D) they, along with the eudicots, Amborella, and water lilies, are currently placed in the phylum Anthophyta.
E) there are no exceptions among the statements listed above.
88) Which function is, at least partly, performed by cells that are no longer alive?
A) transport of sugars in gymnosperms
B) structural support in gymnosperms
C) water transport in angiosperms
D) stomatal opening and closing in angiosperms
E) water transport in gymnosperms
89) How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?
A) by nourishing the plants that make them
B) by facilitating dispersal of seeds by wind and animals
C) by producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat
D) by producing triploid cells via double fertilization
E) by attracting insects to the pollen inside
90) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. This success is due to all of the following except
A) fruits enclosing seeds.
B) sperm cells with flagella.
C) animal pollination.
D) reduced gametophytes.
E) xylem with vessels.
91) One of the major benefits of double fertilization in angiosperms is to
A) coordinate developmental timing between the embryo and its food stores.
B) increase the number of fertilization events and offspring produced.
C) decrease the potential for mutation by insulating the embryo with other cells.
D) promote diversity in flower shape and color.
E) emphasize embryonic survival by increasing embryo size.
92) Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?
A) ovary B) style C) fruit D) stamen E) ovule
93) Which of the following flower parts develops into a fruit?
A) ovule B) style C) receptacle D) stigma E) ovary
94) Double fertilization means that angiosperms
A) have two sperm nuclei, which simultaneously fertilize the single egg.
B) are the only plants that can produce dizygotic twins.
C) have two sperm nuclei, both of which unite with nuclei of the female gametophyte.
D) have embryos that are triploid.
E) Both B and D are true.
95) Which of the following are not found in angiosperms?
A) vessel elements
D) flagellated sperm
E) triploid endosperm
96) Which part of the female gametophyte contributes to the formation of endosperm upon successful fertilization?
A) synergids B) egg C) antipodal cells D) polar nuclei
97) The following are all characteristic of angiosperms except
A) free-living gametophytes.
B) coevolution with animal pollinators.
C) double internal fertilization.
98) A botanist discovers a new species of plant with a dominant sporophyte, chlorophyll a and b, and a cell wall made of cellulose. In assigning this plant to a division, all of the following would provide useful information except whether or not the plant has
E) flagellated sperm.
99) The primary role of the mushroom's underground mycelium is
A) absorbing nutrients.
C) sexual reproduction.
E) asexual reproduction.
100) What is a characteristic of all fungi?
C) saprobic lifestyle
D) heterotrophic nutrition
E) dikaryotic hyphae
101) Which of the following do all fungi have in common?
A) coenocytic hyphae
B) absorption of nutrients
C) symbioses with algae
D) sexual life cycle
E) meiosis in basidia
102) Fungi are all of the following except
E) absorptive heterotrophs.
103) Chemicals, secreted by soil fungi, that inhibit the growth of bacteria are known as
104) What do fungi and arthropods have in common?
A) Both groups are commonly coenocytic.
B) Both groups use chitin for the construction of protective coats.
C) Both groups are predominantly saprobic in nutrition.
D) The haploid state is dominant in both groups.
E) Both groups have cell walls.
105) The vegetative (nutritionally active) bodies of most fungi are
A) composed of hyphae.
B) usually underground.
C) referred to as a mycelium.
D) Only A and B
E) A, B, and C
106) Lichens are symbiotic associations of fungi and
B) green algae.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
107) A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. What process best accounts for the observation that, upon reaching sexual maturity, this fungus produces a nearly circular fairy ring despite the fact that organic nutrients are not evenly distributed in the soil?
B) cytoplasmic streaming
D) alternation of generations
108) When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. An important concern of viticulturists who engage in this practice should be that the
A) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed.
B) fungicide doesn't also kill mycorrhizae.
C) fungicide doesn't also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes.
D) fungicide isn't also harmful to insect pests.
E) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue.
109) How are the vascular plants that are involved in mycorrhizae and the algae that are involved in lichens alike?
A) They secrete acids that keep the fungal partner from growing too quickly.
B) They are digested by fungal exoenzymes while still alive.
C) They contain endosymbiotic fungi.
D) They are in intimate associations with chytrids.
E) They provide organic nutrients to fungal partners.
110) If there were no mycorrhizae, then which of the following would be true?
A) Cheeses like blue cheese or Roquefort would not exist.
B) There would be fewer infectious diseases.
C) We wouldn't have any antibiotics.
D) Most vascular plants would be stunted in their growth.
E) There would be no mushrooms for pizza.
111) The following are all generally observed among animals except
A) unique types of intercellular junctions such as tight and gap junctions.
C) nervous and muscle tissue.
D) sexual reproduction.
E) autotrophic nutrition.
112) Which of the following terms or structures are not associated with animal cells?
E) cell wall
113) Both animals and fungi are completely heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition
A) from organic matter.
B) by ingesting it.
C) by consuming living, rather than dead, prey.
D) by preying upon animals.
E) by using enzymes to digest their food.
114) The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of certain other insects look radically different from adults, eat different foods, and may even live in different environments. What condition should most directly favor the evolution of the more radical kind of metamorphosis?
A) increasing oxygen content of the biosphere
B) the evolution of meiosis
C) the felt need to introduce variety into the species
D) volcanoes in the environment
E) limited resources
115) Assuming that all of the following events occur, what is the correct sequence in which the following processes occur during the development of an individual animal?
A) 4, 3, 2, 1 B) 3, 4, 1, 2 C) 3, 2, 4, 1 D) 3, 4, 2, 1 E) 4, 3, 1, 2
116) According to the evidence collected so far, the animal kingdom is
117) The common ancestor of all animals was probably a
118) Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is true?
1. Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi.
2. All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect.
3. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic.
4. Only animals reproduce by sexual means.
5. Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates.
A) 3, 5 B) 2, 4 C) 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 3 E) 5
119) Which of the following is not consistent with distinguishing an animal from other life forms?
A) impulse conduction and movement
B) sexual reproduction
C) multicellular, autotrophic, eukaryote
D) structural proteins such as collagen
E) regulatory genes called Hox genes
120) The number of legs an insect has, or the number of vertebrae in a vertebrate's vertebral column, or the number of joints in a digit (such as a finger), are all strongly influenced by __________ genes.
E) introns within
121) What should animals as diverse as corals and monkeys have in common?
A) type of body symmetry
B) degree of cephalization
C) number of embryonic tissue layers
D) presence of Hox genes
E) body cavity between body wall and digestive system
122) During metamorphosis, echinoderms undergo a transformation from motile larvae to a fairly sedentary (and sometimes sessile) existence as adults. What should be true of adults, though not of larvae? Adults should
A) lack a body cavity.
B) lack mesodermally derived tissues.
C) be diploblastic.
D) appear to possess radial symmetry.
E) Two of these are true.
123) Cephalization is generally associated with all of the following except
A) a brain.
B) a longitudinal nerve cord.
C) a sessile existence.
D) concentration of sensory structures at the anterior end.
E) bilateral symmetry.
124) You are trying to indentify an organism. It is an animal but it contains no muscle tissue. It is not diploblastic. It must be a
A) flatworm. B) nematode. C) jellyfish. D) comb jelly. E) sponge.
125) Which of the following is an important distinction between a coelomate animal and a pseudocoelomate animal? Coelomates
A) have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates have a digestive tract with only one opening.
B) have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place.
C) contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such tissue.
D) have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas a pseudocoelomate's body cavity does not.
E) have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.
126) Which of the following is not a function that can be served by a fluid-filled body cavity?
A) It can serve as a storage compartment for food.
B) It helps prevent internal injury by cushioning internal organs.
C) It can act as a hydrostatic skeleton.
D) It enables organs to grow and move independently of the outer body wall.
E) All of the above are correct.
127) The blastopore is a structure that is evident in the
B) eight-cell stage.
D) egg and sperm.
128) Which of the following organisms are deuterostomes?
E) Both C and D are deuterostomes.
129) Which of the following characteristics correctly applies to protosome development?
A) radial cleavage
C) determinate cleavage
D) blastopore becomes the anus
E) archenteron absent
130) Rank the following, from most inclusive to least inclusive.
A) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 B) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 C) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 D) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 E) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
131) What kind of data should probably have the greatest impact on animal taxonomy in the coming decades?
A) similarities in metabolic pathways
B) comparative morphology of living species
C) nucleotide sequences of homologous genes
D) fossil evidence
E) the number and size of chromosomes within nuclei
132) Phylogenetic trees are best described as
A) true and inerrant statements about evolutionary relationships.
B) theories of evolution.
C) the most accurate possible representations of genetic relationships among taxa.
D) the closest things to absolute certainty that modern systematists can produce.
E) hypothetical portrayals of evolutionary relationships.
133) Generally, when referring to phylogenetic trees, all of the following belong except
B) based on evidence.
134) Almost all of the major animal body plans we see today appeared in the fossil record over 500 million years ago at the beginning of the
A) Carboniferous period.
B) Cretaceous period.
C) Ediacaran period.
D) Cambrian period.
E) Burgess period.
135) The cells in a sponge responsible for trapping food particles from circulating water are called
B) pore cells (porocytes).
D) mesophyl cells.
136) Muscles and nerves in their simplest forms occur in the
E) ribbon worms.
137) The larvae of many common human tapeworms are usually found
A) encysted in the muscle of an animal such as a cow or pig.
B) encysted in human muscle.
C) in the intestines of cows and pigs.
D) in the human intestine.
E) in the abdominal blood vessels of humans.
138) An arthropod has all the following characteristics except
A) three embryonic germ layers.
B) bilateral symmetry.
C) true tissues.
D) protostome development.
E) a pseudocoelom.
139) While snorkeling, a student observes an active marine animal that has a series of muscular tentacles bearing suckers associated with its head. There is no evidence of segmentation, but a pair of large, well-developed eyes is evident. The student is observing an animal belonging to the class
140) Annelids are abundant and successful organisms characterized accurately by all of the following except
A) a cuticle made of chitin.
B) a hydrostatic skeleton.
D) a complete digestive system.
E) some parasitic forms.
141) Which of the following is a characteristic of adult echinoderms?
A) external skeleton
B) a lophophore
C) spiral cleavage
D) incomplete digestive system
E) secondary radial symmetry
For the following questions, match the phrases with the choices below. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
142) protostomes that have an open circulatory system and an exoskeleton of chitin
143) deuterostomes that have an internal skeleton
144) protostomes that have a closed circulatory system and true segmentation
145) All of the following animal groups have evolved terrestrial life forms except
155) Which of the following is not a shared characteristic of all chordates?
A) pharyngeal slits
B) dorsal, hollow nerve cord
C) post-anal tail
E) four-chambered heart
156) What is one characteristic that separates chordates from all other animals?
A) hollow dorsal nerve cord
B) bilateral symmetry
C) blastopore, which becomes the anus
D) true coelom
157) Which of these are characteristics of all members of the Vertebrata during at least a portion of their development as individuals?
A) a dorsal hollow nerve cord
B) post-anal tail
C) A and B only
D) pharyngeal slits
E) A, B, and C
158) Pharyngeal gill slits appear to have functioned first as
A) the opening to the digestive system or mouth.
B) gill slits for respiration.
C) components of the jaw.
D) portions of the inner ear.
E) suspension-feeding devices.
159) Which of the following statements would be least acceptable to most zoologists?
A) The modern cephalochordates are the immediate ancestors of the vertebrates.
B) Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that cephalochordates are the most recent common ancestor of all vertebrates.
C) Cephalochordates display the same method of swimming as do fishes.
D) The first fossils resembling cephalochordates appeared in the fossil record at least 550 million years ago.
E) Modern cephalochordates are contemporaries of vertebrates, not their ancestors.
For the following questions, match the characteristic or description with the class. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
160) most members have a cartilaginous endoskeleton
161) internal fertilization, amniotic egg, skin that resists drying, evolved in late Carboniferous
162) three major groups: egg-laying, pouched, and placental
163) includes salamanders, frogs, and toads
164) includes snakes, turtles, and lizards
165) The jaws of vertebrates were derived by the modification of
A) one or more gill arches.
B) one or more of the bones of the cranium.
C) one or more gill slits.
D) scales of the lower lip.
E) one or more of the vertebrae.
166) In which class did jaws first occur?
167) Which one of the following has a two-chambered heart?
168) What is a distinctive feature of the class Chondrichthyes?
A) an amniotic egg
B) unpaired fins
C) an acute sense of vision that includes the ability to distinguish colors
D) lack of jaws
E) a cartilaginous endoskeleton
169) Why is the term cold-blooded not very appropriate for reptiles?
A) The keratinized skin of reptiles serves to insulate and conserve heat.
B) The scales of reptiles serve to dissipate excess body heat by reradiation to the environment.
C) Reptiles swallow large prey whole to provide enough food to generate body heat.
D) Reptiles regulate body temperature by using various mechanisms such as behavioral adaptations.
170) The swim bladder of modern bony fishes
A) was probably modified from simple lungs of freshwater fishes.
B) developed into lungs in saltwater fishes.
C) first appeared in sharks.
D) provides buoyancy but at a high energy cost.
E) Both C and D are correct.
171) What are the most abundant and diverse vertebrates?
C) bony fishes
172) The amniote egg first evolved in which of the following groups?
D) egg-laying mammals (monotremes)
173) In which vertebrates is fertilization exclusively internal?
A) Mammalia, Aves, and Amphibia
B) Chondrichthyes, Osteichthyes, and Reptilia
C) Reptilia, Aves, and Mammalia
D) Chondricthyes, Osteichthyes, and Mammalia
E) Amphibia, Mammalia, and Aves
174) Which of these is not considered an amniote?
A) birds B) amphibians C) reptiles D) mammals
175) Which of the following structures are possessed by birds only?
A) a large brain and endothermy
B) light bones and a four-chambered heart
C) enlarged pectoral muscles and a four-chambered heart
D) feathers and carinate sternum
E) a short tail and mammary glands
176) Which of these characteristics greatly added to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments?
A) the amniotic egg
B) two pairs of appendages
D) a four-chambered heart
E) the ability to maintain a constant body temperature
177) Which of the following are the only modern animals that may have descended directly from dinosaurs?
A) snakes B) lizards C) birds D) crocodiles E) mammals
178) What is the single unique characteristic that distinguishes modern birds from other modern animals?
A) a hinged jaw
B) a superb sense of sight
C) an amniotic egg
E) a gizzard
179) Which sequence of evolutionary relationships is consistent with the fossil record?
A) reptiles rightarrow amphibians rightarrow birds rightarrow fishes
B) reptiles rightarrow birds rightarrow amphibians rightarrow fishes
C) fishes rightarrow birds rightarrow reptiles rightarrow amphibians
D) reptiles rightarrow birds rightarrow fishes rightarrow amphibians
E) fishes rightarrow amphibians rightarrow reptiles rightarrow birds
180) Which of the following statements about mammalian evolution is correct?
A) The first mammals were large predators like the saber-toothed tigers.
B) The early mammals were most similar to small, bipedal, ratite birds.
C) Mammals evolved from reptilian stocks even earlier than birds.
D) Mammals did not coexist with the dominant dinosaurs.
E) Mammals evolved from the marsupials during the Pleistocene epoch.
181) Which is not characteristic of all mammals?
A) have hair during at least some period of their life
B) give birth to live young (viviparous)
C) have a diaphragm to assist in ventilating the lungs
D) a four-chambered heart that prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
E) have glands to produce milk to nourish their offspring
182) Which of the following classifications would not apply to both dogs and humans?
A) class Mammalia
B) subphylum Vertebrata
C) kingdom Animalia
D) order Primata
E) phylum Chordata
183) How are primates different from all other mammals?
A) opposable thumbs in many species
B) hairy bodies
C) naked faces
D) ability to produce milk
E) placental embryonic development
184) Humans and apes are presently classified in the same category at all of the following levels except
A) class. B) phylum. C) kingdom. D) order. E) genus.
185) With which of the following statements would a biologist be most inclined to agree?
A) Humans and apes represent divergent lines of evolution from a common ancestor.
B) Apes evolved from humans.
C) Humans evolved from
D) Humans have stopped evolving and now represent the pinnacle of evolution.
E) Humans and apes are the result of disruptive selection in a species of gorilla.
186) The major and dramatic alteration of hominid anatomy was primarily the result of
A) enlargement of the brain.
B) the development of speech.
C) protracted postnatal development of offspring.
D) the adoption of tool use.
E) an upright stance.
187) Which of these statements about human evolution is true?
A) Different features have evolved at different rates.
B) The evolution of upright posture and enlarged brain occurred simultaneously.
C) Mitochondrial DNA analysis indicates that modern humans are genetically very similar to Neanderthals.
D) Human evolution has proceeded in an orderly fashion from an ancestral anthropoid to Homo sapiens.
E) The ancestors of Homo sapiens were chimpanzees and other apes.
188) Based on current evidence, which of the following statements best describes the evolution of humans?
A) Humans evolved from the chimpanzee.
B) The various characteristics that we associate with humans evolved in unison over long periods of time.
C) Humans are more closely related to gorillas than to chimpanzees.
D) Humans evolved in a single, orderly series of stages in which each stage became more advanced than its predecessor.
E) Humans and apes diverged from a common ancestor about 5-7 million years ago.
1) Answer: E
2) Answer: A
3) Answer: B
4) Answer: C
5) Answer: D
6) Answer: E
7) Answer: B
8) Answer: E
9) Answer: D
10) Answer: E
11) Answer: A
12) Answer: D
13) Answer: E
14) Answer: E
15) Answer: D
16) Answer: C
17) Answer: C
19) Answer: C
20) Answer: C
21) Answer: C
22) Answer: C
23) Answer: A
24) Answer: D
25) Answer: C
26) Answer: D
27) Answer: D
28) Answer: E
29) Answer: D
30) Answer: D
31) Answer: C
32) Answer: B
33) Answer: E
34) Answer: A
35) Answer: D
36) Answer: C
37) Answer: E
38) Answer: D
39) Answer: E
40) Answer: E
41) Answer: D
42) Answer: E
43) Answer: E
44) Answer: B
45) Answer: E
46) Answer: D
47) Answer: C
48) Answer: D
49) Answer: D
51) Answer: B
52) Answer: C
53) Answer: D
54) Answer: C
55) Answer: A
56) Answer: A
57) Answer: C
58) Answer: A
59) Answer: E
60) Answer: A
61) Answer: B
62) Answer: E
63) Answer: C
64) Answer: A
65) Answer: E
66) Answer: C
67) Answer: E
68) Answer: C
69) Answer: D
70) Answer: B
71) Answer: B
72) Answer: A
73) Answer: E
74) Answer: E
75) Answer: B
76) Answer: B
77) Answer: A
78) Answer: B
79) Answer: C
80) Answer: D
81) Answer: E
82) Answer: E
83) Answer: D
84) Answer: D
85) Answer: B
86) Answer: E
87) Answer: C
88) Answer: C
89) Answer: B
90) Answer: B
91) Answer: A
92) Answer: E
93) Answer: E
94) Answer: C
95) Answer: D
96) Answer: D
97) Answer: A
98) Answer: C
99) Answer: A
100) Answer: D
101) Answer: B
102) Answer: C
103) Answer: E
104) Answer: B
105) Answer: E
106) Answer: E
107) Answer: B
108) Answer: B
109) Answer: E
110) Answer: D
111) Answer: E
112) Answer: E
113) Answer: B
114) Answer: E
115) Answer: B
116) Answer: B
117) Answer: C
118) Answer: A
119) Answer: C
120) Answer: B
121) Answer: D
122) Answer: D
123) Answer: C
124) Answer: E
125) Answer: D
126) Answer: A
127) Answer: C
128) Answer: E
129) Answer: C
130) Answer: D
131) Answer: C
132) Answer: E
133) Answer: E
134) Answer: D
135) Answer: C
136) Answer: C
137) Answer: A
138) Answer: E
139) Answer: A
140) Answer: A
141) Answer: E
142) Answer: D
143) Answer: E
144) Answer: B
145) Answer: C
155) Answer: E
156) Answer: A
157) Answer: E
158) Answer: E
159) Answer: A
160) Answer: C
161) Answer: E
162) Answer: D
163) Answer: A
164) Answer: E
165) Answer: A
166) Answer: C
167) Answer: D
168) Answer: E
169) Answer: D
170) Answer: A
171) Answer: C
172) Answer: B
173) Answer: C
174) Answer: B
175) Answer: D
176) Answer: A
177) Answer: C
178) Answer: D
179) Answer: E
180) Answer: C
181) Answer: B
182) Answer: D
183) Answer: A
184) Answer: E
185) Answer: A
186) Answer: E
187) Answer: A
188) Answer: E